Golf_Paul wrote on Apr 10
th, 2011 at 4:47pm:
Of course calls will be charged at the prevailing rate
But should the actual cost be declared?
What is it exactly that you are questioning?
Should there be a different version of the paper in question (each with different text in the advert) for subscribers of each telephone service provider?
Seems not very feasible to me.
Golf_Paul wrote on Apr 10
th, 2011 at 4:47pm:
I'm confused
Is this terminology acceptable under the rules for specifying call charges?
It seems to be to be more a question of "what yer gonna do about it?"
I have received a voucher for Homebase, enclosed within a purchase from Amazon.co.uk in which it says that calls to a 0845 number are "charged at local rate".